/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
After the signing of the Treaty of Versailles in 1919, Ferdinand Foch remarked that this only represented "an armistice for twenty years". Why exactly did he say twenty? What did he know?
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Is there an opposite to the Great Man theory? For example, do any historians believe a ruler like Charles II of Spain or John Lackland were so incompetent they had a decisive historical impact beyond preexisting societal forces?
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What do you think were some of the most important relationships between trade and religion in India?
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Why is it held that a Caliph in Islam must be a descendent of Muhammad's Quraysh tribe when Muhammad spent much of his life at war with them?
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To what extent did the peacefully annexed territories (Austria, Czechoslovakia) contribute to Germany's industrial and military strength leading up to the Second World War? Would Germany have been able to achieve as much military success between 1939 and 1945 without those annexations?
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Is the only reason other parties and political groups rallied behind the Islamists after/during the Iranian Revolutions, was due to the Iraqi invasion?
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